Posted by student on March 19, 2013, 10:38 pm
Hey, so I'm trying to justify the expression for paramagnetic magnetic susceptibility and have few troubles. Firstly I remember in lectures you saying that a lot of time could be save by taking the B>0 approx early, where exactly should this be done as I get a horrible mess when I try this out. Going the (supposed) long way around I have a couple of coths lying around in my Magnetisation, it seems that I should expand these about zero but neglect the 1/x leading term to get the required expression, however I'm not sold... Thanks for any help! 
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